JaneBond007
New Member
Welp!
Seriously, something has been taken out of context. Just because the Torah didn't mention 'pre-marital' sex, it does emphasize Marriage and sex is only mentioned within the context of Marriage and never mentioned outside of Marriage. Which concludes that sex is for Marriage only and between a man and a woman.
Further meaning that it is clearly understood that sex before marriage is not permissible.
Disclaimer: This comment is not towards you. Again, this comment is not towards you. I need to make this perfectly clear, Jane, the following comment is not about you. Am I clear?
Okay, here's my comment:
Folks stay tryin' to make something out of what something is not, just because the Bible did not make a specific mention of a particular word or term. Example: gay marriage. According to the gays and their supporters, because Jesus did not speak against gay marriage, it means that he validated it. That 'reach' is so long that they're falling overboard into the murky waters with the sharks.
I just sayin'....
Folks be steady tryin' and reachin' for stuff that's not even there just to validate their sin.
Joseph and Mary were engaged; had they been married she would not been a Virgin in the sense of never haven been touched (never have had intercourse) outside nor inside of Marriage. The Word of God is clear that Mary was indeed a Virgin. Therefore premarital sex was indeed a sin in the eyes of God or He would not have chosen her womb to carry His Son.
The 'name' Wife was always associated with sex... 'he knew his wife.. etc.
I was to share more but I'm at my desk...
@Iwanthealthyhair67, @MrsHaseeb, @Laela,
Help... Please.
I do not see where pre-maritial sex was not considered a sin in the Old Testament. It was always a sin. God designed sex to be between marriage only.
I don't know that that's entirely true, though. "Help!!" I know, right? Yes, Mary was a Virgin, but "married" in the sense that the ketuba was signed, or something to that effect. Or did the ketuba come later? I dunno. They were in a state of engagement leading to marriage but she was definitely set apart for Joseph. I'm asking a trusted orthodox scholar right now and will relay what he says on the permissibility of premarital sex. He's very, very thorough and so, I'll just paste and copy the whole thing. I know it's gonna be verbose!
Now, regarding the sin, again, it was mostly cultural and evidently, they had a problem with it. Concubinage wasn't banned. A man could have more than one wife. I'm assuming that around the time of St. Paul, monogamy was mostly the norm. In one of the articles, it raises a point that premarital sex was occurring to the extent that they culturally addressed it, long before Jesus. But it's not specifically prohibited. I think a key to (my) understanding it would be the symbolism of the "furnace" mentioned all through scripture as it evidently has a very significant presence throughout scripture. I want to know the levels of meaning of that, sexual energy in regards to how it regulates our relationship with G-d (life force, creation etc.) and why the church deemed it necessary to prohibit it. Lastly, I want to know the specific time that orthodoxy in judaism prohibited it.
Um, that was a joke about wondering if I'm going to be Jewish or christian come Friday evening.
Last edited: